Anyway, the total number of Jews in the world approximated 15,000,000 individuals both before and after the war. There is no room for 6,000,000 dead. While it is true that the number of Jews in continental Europe decreased significantly between 1933 and 1945, most of it was due to migration to countries like the US, the UK, Palestine, Australia or Canada.
I knew you'd try to use this one. The 15,000,000 population estimates from before and after the war (1939 and 1948 estimates, respectively) comprise a common--and deliberate, I presume--misunderstanding from you and your fellow neo-nazis. Here's an explanation from
http://www.holocaust-history.org/denial/revisionism-qa.shtml:
44) How do you explain the fact that the World Almanac showed 15,319,359 Jews in the world in 1940 and 15,713,638 in 1949 (based on 1948 figures), if 6 million Jews are supposed to have perished in the Holocaust?
This typical piece of denier chicanery is explained fairly easily. Deniers like to make us think that the 1948 figure is the number of Jews in 1948, but it is not. The 1948 figures (quoted in the 1949 edition) are based on the 1938 - that is pre-war - census. The figures for 1949 are post-war and show a catastrophic drop in the Jewish population, down to 11,266,600. When you factor in the fact that the 1949 edition assessed the 1939 population at 16,643,120, you arrive at a difference of 5,376,520.
Are you saying that transporting people thousand miles away and gassing them to death was more efficient than just shooting them in the head?
I'm saying that trying to kill 6,000,000 Jews with bullets is impractical, inefficient, and costly, especially when there is a war effort going on. Keep in mind that the Nazis had other ethnic minorities to handle, too. Do try reading the many documents detailing why the *final* solution came about.
As for your article, it follows the basic formula in your posts, where you use phrases like "it has been proven beyond reasonable doubt" or "it has been generally accepted that..." without actually proving anything. Hardly very scientific.
Oh, and speaking of "scientific":
So Rudolf used pseudonyms. That doesn't discredit what he was actually saying.
Yes it does, because it shows that his research methods are intellectually dishonest and therefore cannot be trusted. How else would *you* interpret the fact that he references a Dr Konrad, without letting the reader know that no such person exists? How would you account for his other personae, also referenced without letting the reader know the truth?