Well, I gather that 'asexual' is a trait more common amongst people on the spectrum than otherwise but I don't suppose that makes much difference, does it? But then I don't really get the way people want to cite odds about such things (apart from most of them don't understand probability, of course!). The odds of any individual being that specific person are 1 in infinity! Any properly qualified Maths people here to confirm that, for any doubters, please? lols